Allan , Toronto ON 04/02/06
RE: 93% of what is communicated in any dialogue is non-verbal.
Where does this number come from? How does the author know that exactly 93% of what is communicated in any dialogue is non-verbal? How can this figure be replicated or arrived at independently? How does one determine the exact percentage of interpersonal communication that is non-verbal?
Speaking for myself, I am highly sceptical that anyone could come up with such a precise figure using verifiable research methods. When I see this type of pseudo-precision in an article, it leads me to doubt the veracity of everything else in the article too.
Why not use a more verifiable, but equally effective statement like, "Much or possibly most of what is communicated in any dialogue is non-verbal"?